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Trauma for FRCS (Tr & Orth)

Trauma runs from the resuscitation room to the fracture clinic: polytrauma and damage control, open fractures and soft-tissue reconstruction, compartment syndrome and vascular injury, the principles of fixation and the management of non-union and fracture-related infection, and then the regional injuries of the upper limb, pelvis and acetabulum, hip and femur, knee, tibia, ankle and foot, and the spine. UK practice is codified in the British Orthopaedic Association’s BOAST standards and in NICE guidance, and the paper is set to that practice — so the timings and thresholds in those documents are worth knowing exactly. It is the largest section of our bank.

300 questions in the bank · 5 topics Updated 11 November 2026

Topics in this domain

  • Trauma principles, polytrauma & open fractures50
  • Upper limb trauma75
  • Pelvis, acetabulum, hip & femur trauma75
  • Knee, tibia, ankle & foot trauma75
  • Spinal trauma25

What the paper tends to test

  • Open fracture questions test the BOAST standard: antibiotics within the hour, the timing of debridement by contamination and energy, and definitive cover within 72 hours.
  • Polytrauma questions describe a physiological picture — temperature, lactate, coagulopathy, chest injury — and ask whether early definitive fixation or damage control is appropriate.
  • Compartment syndrome is asked as a clinical diagnosis, with pain out of proportion and pain on passive stretch as the early signs, and with the pressure threshold used when the patient cannot be examined.
  • Hip fracture questions turn on the fracture pattern and the patient: which implant for a displaced intracapsular, trochanteric or subtrochanteric fracture, and when.
  • Regional questions usually ask for the associated injury or the structure at risk: the axillary nerve in anterior shoulder dislocation, the sciatic nerve in posterior hip dislocation, the popliteal artery in knee dislocation.
  • Fixation questions ask which mode of stability a fracture needs and which construct delivers it.

Classic traps and discriminators

  • The Gustilo–Anderson grade is assigned at surgical debridement, not in the emergency department: the size of the skin wound underestimates the zone of injury.
  • A Gustilo IIIC fracture is defined by an arterial injury that needs repair, whatever the size of the wound; IIIB is defined by soft-tissue loss with periosteal stripping that will need flap cover.
  • Neurogenic shock is hypotension with bradycardia from loss of sympathetic tone; spinal shock is the temporary loss of reflexes below a cord injury. They are different things and can coexist.
  • A reverse oblique or subtrochanteric fracture is not treated with a sliding hip screw: the fracture line runs parallel to the screw, so the construct cannot compress and the shaft medialises. An intramedullary nail is used.
  • A Monteggia injury is an ulnar fracture with dislocation of the radial head; a Galeazzi injury is a radial shaft fracture with disruption of the distal radioulnar joint. In both, the joint injury is the part that is missed.

Free trauma practice questions

From the free sample — original, referenced, with the full explanation. Rate your confidence first.

07Trauma·Trauma principles, polytrauma & open fractures
medium

A 28-year-old motorcyclist has bilateral closed femoral shaft fractures and bilateral pulmonary contusions. After six units of red cells his blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, temperature 34.6 °C, lactate 4.6 mmol/L and platelet count 85 × 10⁹/L.

What is the most appropriate management of his femoral fractures in the next few hours?

How sure are you?
08Trauma·Trauma principles, polytrauma & open fractures
easy

A 29-year-old cyclist is brought to the emergency department with an open fracture of the tibial shaft and a 6 cm wound over the anteromedial leg.

Within what time from injury should prophylactic intravenous antibiotics be administered, according to the BOAST standard?

How sure are you?
09Trauma·Spinal trauma
medium

An 87-year-old woman with advanced dementia, who lives in a nursing home and is hoisted for transfers, falls from her chair. CT shows a type II odontoid fracture with 2 mm of posterior displacement. There is no neurological deficit.

What is the most appropriate management?

How sure are you?
10Trauma·Upper limb trauma
medium

A 27-year-old rugby player has severe pain over the acromioclavicular joint after a tackle and cannot elevate the arm. An anteroposterior radiograph shows only slight widening of the joint with a normal coracoclavicular distance, yet the lateral clavicle cannot be felt in its normal position.

Which radiographic view is most likely to reveal the injury?

How sure are you?

Free revision notes

Trauma questions, answered

What are the BOAST timings for open fractures?

Intravenous antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within one hour of injury. Debridement immediately for highly contaminated wounds or vascular compromise, within 12 hours for solitary high-energy open fractures, and within 24 hours for low-energy open fractures. Definitive soft-tissue cover within 72 hours if it cannot be done at the time of debridement. The detail is in open fractures: the BOAST standard.

When is damage control orthopaedics indicated?

When a polytrauma patient is physiologically unstable or borderline — hypothermic, coagulopathic, acidotic, with a significant chest or head injury — and prolonged definitive surgery would add a harmful second hit. Fractures are stabilised rapidly, usually with external fixation, and definitive fixation follows once the patient has been resuscitated.

How is compartment syndrome diagnosed?

Clinically, in an awake patient: pain out of proportion to the injury and pain on passive stretch of the muscles in the compartment. Where the patient cannot be assessed, compartment pressure is measured, and a difference between diastolic pressure and compartment pressure of less than 30 mmHg supports fasciotomy.

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